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Residential Energy Analyst Quiz
Which of the following best describes the job of a technical energy auditor?
a) Write investment reports, perform diagnostic tests, and inspect building envelopes.
b) Collect and analyze data and perform diagnostic tests and water analysis.
c) Write investment reports and perform diagnostic tests and water analysis.
d) Collect and analyze data, inspect building envelopes, and perform diagnostic tests.
One and a half square feet is equivalent to how many square inches?
How many dimensions are used to calculate volume?
Calculate the volume of a bulding with a length of 50'9", a width of 30'3", and a height of 8'.
a) 12,000 CuFt.
b) 12,190.15 CuFt.
c) 12,281.5 CuFt.
d) 12,338.16 CuFt.
Calculate the area of a knee wall in the shape of a triangle with a base of 12'6" and a height of 6'2". Round all figures to two decimal places.
a) 38.56 SqFt.
b) 38.75 CuFt
c) 39.06 SqFt.
d) 77.13 SqFt.
Calculate the area in inches of an exterior door with dimensions of 6.67' by 3'.
a) 20.01 SqIn.
b) 216 SqIn.
c) 2881.44 SqIn.
d) 2916.12 SqIn.
Which of the following is an accurate definition of accountability?
a) Being personally responsible for one's own actions.
b) Being personally responsible for balancing one's own check book.
c) The ability to manage and place blame for employee actions.
d) The ability to balance books, place blame, and invoice quickly.
Customer expectations of service should always be;
a) Secondary to profit margins.
b) Relative to the quoted price for service.
c) Exceeded for quoted service.
d) Completed to a satisfactory level.
How a person looks, talks, writes, acts, and works determines whether a customer thinks they are a(n):
Understanding a customer's generation helps employees:
a) Better relate to customers.
b) Take measurements more rapidly.
c) Price products more effectively.
d) Prepare more effective written reports.
Who sets the standard for the expected level of customer service?
Excess carbon build up on and around burners and scorching on the front of a atmospheric gas boiler is likely caused by:
a) Excess draft and high gas pressure.
b) High gas pressure and high flue gas oxygen levels.
c) Spillage and low oxygen levels.
d) Low gas pressre and high oxygen levels.
If a natural gas furnace cycle begins and ends twice before reaching the thermostat set point, this is a symptom of:
a) A high heat anticipator setting.
b) A malfunctioning control board.
c) A defective high-limit switch.
d) A low heat anticipator setting.
During a call for heat, the burner of a natural gas furnace cycles off after 6 minutes of runtime.
The fan continues to run, and after 3 minutes the burner cycles on and completes the heating cycle. This is a symptom of:
a) A furnace cycling correctly.
b) A furnace cycling on the high-limit switch.
c) A correctly adjusted heat anticipator.
d) An oversized duct system.
To accurately measure steady state temperature rise of a gas furnace, it is critical that:
a) Temperature measurements are taken as far away from the furnace as possible.
b) Temperature measurements are taken as close to the furnace as possible.
c) Ambient temperature is added to the supply temperature.
d) Temperature probes are within 24 inches of the plenum, and avoid radiant influences.
Gross stack temperature minus combustion air temperature is the:
a) Minimum stack temperature allowed.
b) Net stack temperature.
c) Condensation point temperature.
d) Gross stack temperature.
Complete combustion is only possible:
a) With newer furnaces that have higher efficiency levels.
b) In the presence of excess air.
c) When the furnace has no combustion air.
d) With end-shot burners.
When testing a medium-efficiency gas furnace, the draft test location should be:
a) At the gas manifold.
b) In the flue piping at the chimney entrance and after the regulator.
c) Just above the flames.
d) In the flue piping within 18 inches of the breach.
Turbulaiton of hot flue gases helps:
a) Slow the rate of flue gas flow, keeping gases in the heat exchanger longer.
b) Increase the rate of flue gas flow, keeping gases in the heat exchanger longer.
c) Slow the combustion process and prevent burner soot.
d) Decrease the rate of the combustion process and keep gases in the heat exchanger.
Flue gas levels of carbon monoxide air free in the venting system of natural gas, fuel oil,
and propane furnaces and boilers must never exceed:
a) 100 PPM
b) 150 PPM
c) 200 PPM
d) 400 PPM
Flue gas levels of oxygen for atmnospheric natural gas furnaces and boilers should be between:
a) 2% and 10%
b) 3% and 6%
c) 4% and 14%
d) 6% and 9%
The rate of combustion air intake for a Catagory I fan assisted atmospherically vented appliance is controlled by:
a) Draft inducer
b) Stack draft
c) Flame temperature
d) Outside ambient temperature
Increasing fuel pressure on a natural gas Category IV appliance will:
a) Decrease flue gas velocity and increase excess air.
b) Increase flue gas velocity and increase excess air.
c) Increase flame temperature and decrease excess air.
d) Increase excess air and decrease flame temperature.
When checking an elecrtric water heater thermostat's settings:
a) The top element should always be set higher than the lower element.
b) The lower element comes on first, so it must be set at a higher temperature.
c) Both upper and lower thermostats are set to the same temperature.
d) The top element should always be set lower than the top element.
Zero psia (pounds per square inch absolute) is:
a) The same as atmospheric pressure.
b) Approximately 14.7 psig at sea level.
c) Equal to 0 psig.
d) A pressure which cannot be further reduced.
The standard unit for measuring the quantity of heat in a substance is:
a) Degrees Fahrenheit.
b) British Thermal Unit (BTU).
c) Degrees Celsius.
d) Degrees Rankin.
What is the ambient temperature?
a) The temperature at which ice forms.
b) The temperature in a refrigerator.
c) The temperature surrounding an object.
d) The temperature inside an object.
A visual inspection of an entire air conditioning system reveals traces of oil fittings or connections. These traces are potentially:
a) Air leaks.
b) Refrigerant leaks.
c) Normal oil leakage.
d) Not a problem.
A standard-efficiency natural gas furnace is identifiable by its:
a) ABS and PVC vent materials.
b) Draft hood and standning pilot.
c) ECM motor and PVC vent.
d) Gas valve and draft regulator.
A mid-efficiency propane furnace is identifiable by its:
a) Draft inducer, metal venting, and electronic ignition.
b) Draft inducer, plastic venting, and electronic ignition.
c) Natural draft, metal venting, and electronic ignition.
d) Natural draft, plastic venting, and standing pilot.
Which is required to convey products of combustion to the outside from a mnid-efficiency furnace.
a) Inducer fan.
b) Stack draft.
c) Draft inducer.
d) A power pump.
Gas leaks can be safely located.
a) With a good sense of smell and a match.
b) With the sense of touch and a cigarette lighter.
c) With water and/or visual observations.
d) With soap solution and/or an electronic gas leak detector.
Which is the most deadly product of incomplete combustion.
a) Hydrogen monoxide,
b) Carbon Monoxide.
c) Carbon Dioxide.
The AFUE rating of a heating system is the:
a) Ratio of annual input energy to annual output energy.
b) Ratio of semi-annual input energy to annual output energy.
c) Ratio of annual output energy to annual input energy.
d) Ratio of heat rise to heat loss of heating system.
What type of burner has no air adjustment on a mid efficiency heating system.
One kilowatt is equivalent to:
a) 3413 BTU.
b) 3.1416 BTU.
c) 1.08 BTU.
d) 3.413 BTU.
The neutral wire on a 120-volt AC circuit is normally:
An electrical problem in which current is re-routed from its projected path to a path of much lower resistance is called a(n):
a) Open circuit.
b) Grounded circuit.
c) Shorted circuit.
d) Direct circuit.
Which of the following has the highest resistance to current flow?
a) Copper wire.
b) Rubber insulation.
Which energy source produces most of the electricity in the U.S.?
a) Wind and solar.
d) Fossil fuel.
Which of the following electrical conditions requires correction before adding insulation in an attic.
a) Oversized conductors in a junction box.
b) Lightning rods mounted to the roof decking.
c) Wires joined outside a junction box.
d) Wiring laid perpendicular to the ceiling joists.
Compact fluorescent lamps use approximately:
a) One-third as much electricity as incandescent lamps and last about twice as long.
b) One-third as much electricity as incandescent lamps and last about 5 times as longer.
c) Two-thirds as much electricity as incandescent lamps and last about twice as long.
d) Two-thirds as much electricity as incandescent lamps and last about 5 times as long.
How many tons(weight) of air moved by a 3-ton A/C system with a base of 400 cfm per ton over a 12-hour period of time.
What is the recommended CFM for the net free area of a return air filter grill per square inch?
a) 1 CFM
b) 2 CFM
c) 1.7 CFM
d) 2.7 CFM
Air flow is most affected by which of the following:
a) Air filters.
c) Cooling load.
d) Heated load.
Air flow volume of an electric furnace can be calculated using the:
a) Pressure velocity method.
b) Temperature rise method.
c) Velocity time method.
d) Pressure rise method.
If an air conditioning system has excessive air flow:
a) Too much moisture will be removed.
b) The A coil will freeze up.
c) Condensate will form too fast.
d) The latent load will not be satisfied.
The correct size of the return air pathway to the air handler can be determined by:
a) The sum of all of the return grill areas.
b) Measuring the CFM and velocity.
c) Measuring the area of the supply opening at the air handler.
d) Multiplying 1.08 times the pressure difference across the A coil.
A(n)__________ is an instrument used to measure air velocities.
c) micron gauge
d) CFM meter
What is the recomended CFM for the net free area of a return air filter grill per square inch.
a) 1 CFM
b) 2 CFM
c) 1.7 CFM
d) 2.7 CFM
Which weighs more per cubic foot?
a) Dry air.
b) Moist air.
c) Superheated air.
d) None of the above: all air weighs the same.
When using the temperature rise method to calculate air flow, which formula is used?
a) CFM = BTU/H X 1.08 / Delta T
b) CFM = BTU/H X 1.08 X Delta T
c) CFM = BTU/H / 1.08 / Delta T
d) CFM = BTU/H / 1.08 X Delta T
Which is the best test method for calculating total CFM when using an electric furnace?
a) All supply air grills velocity times the gross area.
b) The return air grill velocity times the gross area.
c) Humidity rise method.
d) Temperature rise method.
Which best describes a blower door?
a) A diagnostic tool designed to depressurize the building only.
b) A diagnostic tool designed to measure the characteristics of a bulding's air tightness.
c) A diagnostic tool used to ventilate a building.
d) A diagnostic tool used to measure the volume of a structure.
What is the primary purpose of a blower door?
a) To prevent air leakage in a building.
b) To be used to calculate the air flow of a bulding heating and cooling system.
c) To detect solar energy entering the shell of a structure.
d) To quantify and locate air leakage.
Two identical homes are pressurized to the standard test pressure. Which has the greater air leakage?
a) The home with the greater volume of air flowing through the fan housing of the blower door.
b) The home with the least volume of air flowing through the fan housing of the blower door.
c) The home with the greatest number of windows and doors.
d) The home with the largest heating and cooling system.
Typical ex-filtration points of a structure are:
a) Attic hatches, chimney flues, dropped ceilings, lighting fixtures, and plumbing penetrations.
b) Walls, floors, sill plates, and drains.
c) Cantilevered floor assemblies, attic knee walls, and cathedral ceilings.
d) Insulated crawl spaces.
Typical infiltration points of a structure are:
a) Rim joists, doors and windows, utility penetrations, and baseboards.
b) Knee wall partitions, doors and windows, and utility penetrations.
c) Rim joists, knee wall partitions, and utility penetrations.
d) Windows and doors, duct work, and knee wall partitions.
What are the major components of a blower door assembly?
a) Permanent door enclosure, fan, speed controller, and manometer.
b) Door enclosure, electric motor, hoses and tubing, and anemometer.
c) Temporary door enclosure, hoses and tubing, and flexible duct.
d) Temporary door enclosure, fan, speed control, and manometer.
The primary purpose of a blower door fans adjustable configuration is to:
a) Control the gross free area of the fan housing.
b) Control the net free area of the fan housing.
c) Allow for greater fan speed to reach test pressure.
d) Allow for minimal fan speed to reach test pressure.
Rate air flow for a blower door tester can be calculated if:
a) The height and shading of the structure are known.
b) The height, length, and width of the structure are known.
c) The velocity back pressure and area of the room are known.
d) The area of the opening and pressure difference are known.
Which blower door fan configuration allows the most air movement?
a) No rings.
b) One ring.
c) Two rings.
d) Three rings.
Flow sensors in a blower doors fan housing are designed to measure:
A differential pressure manometer measures pressure of one zone:
a) With Real Time (WRT) in another location.
b) While Reading Tone (WRT) for another location.
c) With Regulated Turbulence (WRT) of another location.
d) With Reference To (WRT) another zone.
All differential pressure manometers have two taps, which are:
a) An input and a reference.
b) A reference and an output.
c) An input and an output.
d) Both for output.
A blower door can induce or force air through:
a) All windows and doors of a structure.
b) All walls, ceilings, and floors of a structure.
c) All holes and penetrations in the shell of a structure.
d) The holes and penetrations in the roof of a structure.
Blower door results reveal potential energy savings by:
a) Charging mechanical equipment.
b) Revealing air leakage.
c) Educating clients.
d) Improving ventilation.
To protect the reference tube from fan generated turbulence, it is necessary to extend it:
a) Approximately 5 feet outside through the temporary enclosure.
b) Approximately 1 foot outside through the temporary enclosure.
c) Approximately 15 feet outside through the temporary enclosure.
d) Approximately 5 feet inside the temporary enclosure.
A required step in preperation for a negative pressure blower door test is to:
a) Direct the fan outlet toward the interior of the building.
b) Direct the fan inlet toward the exterior of the building.
c) Direct the fan outlet toward the exterior of the building.
d) Direct the fan inlet toward an interior door opening facing out.
What is the primary reason for closing interior garage doors before blower door testing?
a) Garages are always considered inside the pressure boundary of the living area.
b) Garages can never be sealed off properly when conducting a blower door test.
c) The fresh air in a garage is "bonus" air, but can't be relied on all the time.
d) Garages are always considered outside the pressure boundary of the living area.
What two divides operated in tandem most accurately quantify duct leakage to the outside of a structure?
a) A duct tester and a blower door.
b) A blower door and a pressure pan.
c) A duct tester and thermal camera.
d) A pressure pan and a duct testing device.
When testing supply duct air leakage with a duct tester.
a) Make sure all supply air registers and return air grills are open.
b) Remove all supply air registers and seal the return air grills.
c) Seal off all supply air registers and return air grills.
d) Connect an air vent tube to the outside of the structure.
When Testing a duct systems air leakage using a duct tester.
a) A blower door is used to neutralize pressure between the inside of the conditioned space and the inside of the duct work.
b) A blower door is used to neutralize pressure between the outside of the conditioned space and the inside of the duct work.
c) A blower door is used to neutralize pressure between the inside of the conditioned space and the outside of the duct work.
d) A blower door is used to pressurize pressure between the inside of the conditioned space and the outside of the duct work
The standard test pressure for measuring duct system tightness is:
a) 5 pa
b) 0 pa
c) 0 pa
d) 33 pa
The inverse of the U value is:
a) T factors
b) R value
c) K factors
d) R=X factors
What is heat transmission loss?
a) Heat that is contained for later use in a structure or residence.
b) Heat gained to the indoors from solar collection materials.
c) Heat transferred through confining walls, glass, ceilings, floors, or other surfaces.
d) Heat contained in insulation and non-conducting materials for transfer purposes.
What is heat infiltration loss?
a) Loss that results from a faulty fan and ventilation through the duct work in a structure.
b) Heat generated in a structure that does not heat any specific place, but does heat some rooms by condition.
c) The result of radiant heat that causes expansion, indirectly causing cold air to leak into a structure; cold air moves into warmer area.
d) Energy required to warm outdoor air leaking in through cracks and crevices around doors and windows, or open doors and windows, and through some building materials.
R-value increases proportionately with the:
a) Thickness of the material.
b) Length of the material.
c) Cost of the material.
d) Time and date of the materials.
Outer elements of a building, including walls, windows, doors, roofs, and floors, including those below grade, is ASHRAE's description of:
a) The structure only.
b) The building envelope.
c) The thermal structure.
d) The structural integrity.
A thermal break is:
a) A metal frame around a door or window acting to retard heat flow.
b) A wooden material added to a window to enhance its beauty and usefulness.
c) A non-conducting frame around a door or window acting to retard heat flow.
d) A level operated vent that can be added to windows and doors.
Negative pressures measured in the lower levels of a structure and positive
a) Stack effect.
b) Oversized attic venting equipment.
c) The ambient temperature being adjusted too high.
d) Cold air rising and hot air falling.
How is building integrity determined?
a) By inspection, sight testing, and reports from previoius owners.
b) Only by duct blower tests conducted by a heating and cooling technician.
c) Only by a heating and air conditioning technician.
d) By inspection, testing, and visual, quantitative, and qualitative means.
What are some wind pathways for air penetration during heating season?
a) Through items inside a foundation/wall, floor/wall, or wall/roof, and through materials found near concrete blocks and mortor joints.
b) Through items inside a foundation/wall, floor/wall, or wall/window.
c) Through items in a solid foundation/wall, floor/wall, wall/window, or wall/roof, and through holes purposely left exposed in the concrete blocks and mortar joints.
d) Through connections at a foundation/wall, floor/wall, wall/window, or wall/roof, and through materials such as concrete blocks and mortar joints.
A thermal imager can detect:
a) Convection of air streams.
b) Radiation based on temperature.
c) Radiation based on pressure.
d) Any color of all materials.
Air leakage points and pathways can be located using a thermal imager while a blower door creates:
a) Air movement of different temperatures.
b) A smoke filled room.
c) Moisture laden areas which are the same temperature.
d) Pressure anomalies between internal walls of a structure.
Which of the following is the most misleading influence for thermal images?
a) Areas of shading.
b) Light at distance from the object.
c) Effects of solar radiation.
d) Surface dryness.
Scanning with a thermal imager while a blower door tester is operating is considered a(n)___process.
Which leaky faucet is most costly to a homeowner?
a) Kitchen cold water faucet.
b) Outdoor faucet.
c) Bathroom cold water faucet.
d) Bathroom hot water faucet.
Outdoor water audit calculations include water usage for:
a) Irrigation systems.
b) House pressure washing.
c) Water fountains.
d) Swimming pools.
When water is not a provided utility, total water usage in a residence is found by:
a) Subtracting water used for toilets and sewage from the total amount.
b) Adding the water usage in each area together to represent the total.
c) Using the water bill from a neighbor and adding an amount for waste water usage.
d) Subtracting of all gray water and adding 50% to the total amount used.
Asbestos becomes a hazard when:
a) Exposed to open wounds and olfactory cells.
b) Microscopic fibers become airborne and are breathable.
c) It is found in enviroments with over 71.5 relative humidity.
d) It begins fracturing in the human blood stream.
Lead is a safety concern because:
a) Lead oxide gas is now found to be the leading cause of respiratory disease.
b) It absorbs moisture and vitalizes mold growth.
c) It is poisonous when ingested.
d) It attracts small children because of its sweet taste.
Which of the following older building products would most likely contain lead.
a) Knob and tube wiring.
b) Counter tops.
c) Concrete floors and foundations.
When disrupting discovered lead, contractors are required to:
a) Notify building occupants, reduce humidity, minimize work area dust, and clean up thoroughly.
b) Increase humidity levels, use a blower door to pressurize the building, minimize dust, and clean the area.
c) Be certified, contain the work area, minimize dust, and clean up thoroughly.
d) Wear personal lead exposure monitors in compliance with EPA and OSHA regulations.
If a marterial like asbestos is described as "friable," that means:
a) It is continuously in the process of fracturing.
b) It has the ability to refracrt heat molecules.
c) It is lighter than air.
d) It is not easily melted.
Which of the following is considered a type of mold?
Which of the following is used to eliminate mold?
d) Sulfuric acid.
Dead or living mold may cause health issues including:
a) Internal bleeding.
b) Joint pain.
c) Allergic reactions.
d) Hearing loss.
Carbon monoxide poisoning is frequently misdiagnosed as:
b) Addison's disease.
c) Flu symptoms.
d) Coronary aretery disease.
The number one source of accidental carbon monoxide poisoning in North America is:
a) Cracks in heat exchangers.
b) Back-drafting appliances or appliances that do not vent all the time.
c) Unvented cooking appliances.
d) Automobile exhaust.
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